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The Immaculate Conception

By: Admin Coco, Apologist



What does the Immaculate Conception mean?

Immaculate Conception means “Mary the Mother of God was conceived without Original Sin or without stain”.

Mary is Full of Grace

“Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you.” (Luke 1:28) The word “favored one” in some translation of the bible is “full of grace” from the Greek word kecharitomene, means “perfection” and “abundance” of grace.

“Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.” (Luke 1:30)

Mary is the New Eve

The New Testament is the Fulfillment of the Old Testament therefore the new eve has been prophesized in the book of Genesis 3:15: “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers”

And Jesus said to her, “Woman, how does your concern affect me? My hour has not yet come.” (John 2:4).

If you notice the term “Woman” used by Jesus, is the same term used in Genesis to identify Eve. This is very important because God created Eve without sin. Likewise, Mary, the new Eve was conceived without sin. So it is biblical that Mary is the New Eve.

Mary as the Ark of the Covenant

And the angel said to her in reply, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow (episkiasei) you. Therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.” Luke 1:35.

“Then the cloud covered the tent of meeting, and the glory of the LORD (episkiasei) filled the tabernacle. Moses could not enter the tent of meeting, because the cloud settled down upon it and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle.” (Exodus 40:34-35).

Does Romans 3:23 disapprove the fact that Mary’s Immaculate Conception?

Let us remember that the Holiness of Our Mother Mary depends on the Holiness of Jesus Christ, her Son. In other words, the Immaculate Conception represents the saving Grace of our Lord Jesus Christ. That is why during Annunciation, the Angel Gabriel greeted Mary “Hail, Full of Grace” – (Luke 1:28)

But what did St. Paul mean in Romans 3:23 that all have sinned? If we are going to interpret this according to the Protestant Exegesis then logical speaking “Jesus Our God has a Sin also, because he has a Human Nature”. Is that Correct? Of course NOT! The Bible insists that the man Jesus Christ is Sinless (Hebrews. 4:15, 1 John 2:1).

This is a very clear exception. Therefore, we can argue that Mary is also exempted because Jesus Christ is the new Adam (1 Corinthians 15:45, 47) and he has no stain of original sin, therefore it is logical to say that Virgin Mary (the new eve) [cf. Genesis. 3:15, Revelation 12] has no stain of original sin as well.

However, the Immaculate Conception of our Mother Mary is not of her own power but of God’s will for her (Luke 1:38).

In other words, God willed the immaculate conception of Mary (as the new eve) in anticipation of Our Lord Jesus Christ’s redemption of man (Gen. 3:15, Rom. 16:20)

Immaculate Conception Pray for us!

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